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Question - What do you do with passages like James 1:12-15 where it states that YAHWEH doesn't tempt man? How could He be responsible for temptations if he doesn't do that?
Answer - If Yahweh does not tempt any man (according to James 1:12-15), why then do most Christians say the Lords prayer as: "And lead us not into 'temptation,' but deliver us from evil" (Matt. 6:13; Luke 11:4) KJV? Do the passages in James 1:12-15, and Matt. 6:13 contradict each other? We must again go into the Greek language of the New Covenant to find the correct understanding.
Matt. 6:13 - "And bring us not into testing (a situation were we are put to the proof), but rescue us from the bad..."
James 1:12-15 - "Let no one say when he is tested (put to trial), "I am tested by Yahweh," for Yahweh is not temptable by evils (the bad); furthermore He Himself temps not even one. But everyone is tested (put to trial) by his own desire, drawn away and trapped; then the desire having been conceived; gives birth to sin; and sin having been completed, brings forth death."
Yahweh does not directly tempt or entice. Does He does bring about the conditions or situations that puts us to the proof (testing)? Yes, He does! Like He did in the story of Job, when He permitted the adversary to inflict Job's family with evil (bad things). And, even like He did with Yahshua, the first born son, who was tested by the adversary (Matt. 4:1). And, many times Yahweh inflicts evil (the bad) to accomplish His purpose, sometimes even He Himself becomes an adversary 'satan' (I Chron. 21:1). Many times (according to Scripture) He directly causes 'the bad' (the evil). But ultimately, the evil Yahweh causes is used to accomplish His good will, and is for our own good.
For aletheia (truth)
John William,
Assembly of Yahweh, Cascade
Presented for aletheia, by the Assembly of YAHWEH, Cascade
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