Question: Dear Rev. Pastor, I am a Roman Catholic.
In reading the Holy Bible I came across these verses:
1 John 4:1 Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of
God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.
1 John 4:2 Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus
Christ is come in the flesh is of God:
1 John 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the
flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have
heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.
I asked my friends belonging to other sects. They all "confess Jesus Christ is come in
the flesh." I can see we have different ways of salvation. I am wondering how the test
exposes the false prophets.
Your help discerning the false prophets will be highly appreciated.
In Christ, Cris
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Question: The Holy Spirit is referred to as "Lord" in 2 Thessalonians 3:5. There are only two other choices who the Lord can refer to. That is either the Father or the Son. It can't refer to the Father for that would mean that Paul wrote "May the Father direct your hearts to the love of the Father." That seems odd. If that was his intention he would have written "May the Father direct your hearts to His love." It can't refer to the Son for that would be saying "May Christ direct your hearts to the steadfastness of Christ." Again that is odd and not Paul's literary style. If some other name was in the sentence besides Lord would anyone deny that a third party was in view? For example what if the text read "May Tom direct your hearts to the love of God and the steadfastness of Christ." Who would deny that Tom is distinct from God and Christ? Therefore the Lord refers to the Holy Spirit.
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Question: We all agree that the Egyptians were/are black, correct? Scholars have proven this thru extended research. We all know the story of Joseph, correct?
If the Egyptians were people of color - say black, then why weren't Joseph's brothers able to recognize him when they encountered him? If Israelites are reddish or rosy in color, then wouldn't Joseph have stood out amongst the Egyptians to his brothers? Wouldn't it have been overwhelming to them to see a reddish colored Pharaoh?
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Question - Statement: I am not an Arab, a Muslim, nor am I brown or black.
I am a blond hair blue eye American, and by the scriptures, anthropology and archeology, the European "Jews" are not the Israelites, neither are they Jews... they are Rev 2:9 & 3:9
All the Israelites in the scriptures were brown / blacks from the Middle East. http://members.fortunecity.com/arabisraelites/u0000.htm
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Question: Much of your statements are good, yet why is it written in Acts 16:6-7, calling the Holy Spirit the same as the spirit of Jesus. Please don't tell me they are two different spirits functioning within two sentences of one other written by Luke. This is the same spirit working here. And what about John 20:28 where Thomas calls Jesus his lord and his God.
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Question: Is it true that the only people that should be called "Jews are those from the tribe of Judah? - Steven
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Question: Is Islam a Cult, and what do you think is the future of Islam?
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Question: You do not believe that the Holy Spirit is the third person of a Holy Trinity. Why then do Bibles use the personal pronoun 'He' and 'Him' when referring to the Holy Spirit?
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Comment: I don't put too much stock in your contention of what the Lord's name is in the original language. I think He knows when I'm talking to Him. - Rich
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Question: Your definition of the word "evil" is simply "bad." My Hebrew dictionary suggests various meanings such as afflict and punish. How do we know that evil always means bad and/or wicked? I think our children, especially my step-daughter, thought we were evil when we made her work. Was that bad? And didn't YAHWEH often chastise those he loved? Was that wicked or maybe just consequences for going their own way? Just a question???
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Question: It was stated in the study on "The King of Tyre" that no mention was made of Satan in the books of Moses. I am of the understanding that Moses was responsible for writing the book of Job also. Job was likely written before the Torah when Moses was a shepherd. Whether this is important or not does not make much difference. But there is plenty of mention of Satan in the first chapters of Job. We just have to assume that Satan was involved in Eve's fall too. Since YAHWEH'S animal creation cannot carry on conversations without supernatural possession, who was speaking through the serpent in Genesis 3?
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Question: What do you do with passages like James 1:12-15 where it states that YAHWEH doesn't tempt man? How could He be responsible for temptations if he doesn't do that?
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Question: What is your explanation on Revelation's description of the serpent, Satan, or the Devil in chapter 12. Can't we take the Bible for its most obvious meaning?
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Question: I John 3:8 was mentioned in your document "Yahweh and Satan" as the proof that Satan has always sinned. When was the beginning? Genesis 1:1 says that the beginning was the creation of this world? That was just a few thousand years ago. Did not YAHWEH and angels exist before then?
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Question: If Sin and Satan have always existed as a necessary part of the spiritual life in this universe, must it always continue as such? What do you do with Revelation 20 where it describes the destruction of Satan or the adversary?
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Question: I recently came across your web site. I find your material interesting and worthy of further consideration. With regards to one of your issues, I have a couple of questions for you. The first pertains to the use of the name of the Creator in the Greek Scriptures. Why, if the original manuscripts (which are not available now) contained the Tetragrammaton (and this is speculation), do none of the extant copies also contain it? Why would the Creator have allowed so many copies of His Word to go out in this way without His Name in them? Incidentally, I would not argue with you that the use of the word Kyrios or Lord is confusing when one is trying to determine whether the allusion is to The Almighty or to Yashuah/Jesus. The second question relates to the name of the Messiah, Yashuah in Aramaic and the transliteration of his name into Greek. If the names of other people, for example the Apostles, are all Hellenized in the Greek scriptures, and subsequently used as such by all Christians, why not the name of the Messiah? Alternatively for consistency, the names of other characters in the narrative such as Peter, Judas, Matthew etc. should also be kept in the original language.
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Question: Hi, I have been reading your studies, and find them to be a blessing. Which Bible do you recommend for study? What is your understanding of Michael and Jesus being the same person?
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