Holy spirit - and translations using the pronouns "he" and "him"

Questions - You believe that the Holy Spirit is not the third person of a Holy Trinity. Why then do Bibles use the personal pronoun 'He' and 'Him' when referring to the Holy Spirit?

Answer - This is a good question. Yes, some (but not all) translations use personal pronouns when referring to the spirit. But these that do are all translations. The question to really ask is are these pronouns also found in the language of the Greek or the Hebrew manuscripts? In order to answer this question we must get into the language of the manuscripts. If the holy spirit is not a 'third person' of a Trinity addressed as a 'He' or a 'Him' then the Christian concept of a three-in-one God is also an error and the Christian Trinity concept must be discarded.

Following are two translations of the same Scripture passage which take completely opposite positions in their translation of several verses addressing the holy spirit. Such extreme an opposite in translation is a strong indication that one or the other is in error. In these examples we are using the King James Version (KJV) which uses the personal pronoun 'he,' and the Concordant Literal Version (CLV) which uses the neutral pronoun 'it.' We will quote the applicable part of the sentence of them both, then we will check to see what the Greek actually says.

John 14:16 is a good starting place of such a passage referring to the holy spirit

KJV ".... that he may abide with you forever..."

CLV "...that it, indeed may be with you for the eon..."

Greek "...that [it] may remain with you into the age." (it is added for proper English)

Note: the pronoun 'he' is absent from the Greek in the majority of the manuscripts. In a few manuscripts where a pronoun does exist, the pronoun is relative, meaning 'which'. In those few cases, the Greek would read as follows:

Greek alternate "...that which may remain with you into the age."

Conclusion, the passage in the Greek does not contain the pronoun 'he.' The CLV is the more accurate translation here, using the neutral 'it' added for proper English.

John 14:17

KJV ".... because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you."

CLV ".... for it is not beholding it, neither is knowing it. Yet you know it, for it is remaining with you and will be in you."

Greek ".... because it does not see it, nor know it, but you know it, for beside you [it] abides, and in you shall be.

Note: This is a very good example of deceptive translation in the KJV. In the above passage, the word translated "him" from the Greek, in the KJV is the Greek pronoun "auto." This pronoun is not a first person masculine pronoun "him." This pronoun in the Greek is 3rd person neuter and must be translated 'it.'

Conclusion, this is absolute proof of deceptive translation in the KJV, and very easy to verify from the Greek with a basic knowledge of the Greek. The KJV is in error, but the CLV is correct and corresponds completely with the language of the Greek manuscripts.

If we took the time to analyze all the other passages dealing with the spirit the same or similar defective translation of Scripture will be found. In the above passages, as in most of the other passages referring to holy spirit, the pronoun is absent, or if present, it is a relative pronoun like who, which, that, and the neutral, were the word 'it' is required.

There are many other cases in the KJV and other deceptive translations, where the definite article 'the' has been inserted in the English translation where the passage is referring to holy spirit, when the article 'the' does not appear in the Greek text. Inserting the article 'the' in the text when it does not exist in the Greek, can change the entire meaning of the passage; for example,

Luke 1:35

KJV ".... And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee,"

CLV ".... And, answering, the messenger said to her, "Holy spirit shall be coming on you,..."

Greek "....And answering, the messenger said to her, "holy spirit shall be coming upon you,..."

In the above KJV example, the definite article is absent from the Greek text, and added by the translators, also added was the capitalization (indicating a specific person, specific place, or specific thing). The CLV is correct and corresponds with the Greek text, by not adding anything in translation. The incorrect use of the 'definite article' preceding 'holy' by the KJV is an attempt to make 'holy spirit' a definite person, when 'holy spirit' is actually indefinite and not 'specific' in the Greek.

There are also some examples where the definite article 'the' is used in the Greek when referring to holy spirit, as in 'the holy spirit,' indicating a specific spirit, or Holy spirit. But, without exception, when 'the' is used it is always 'in the neutral' inferring that 'the' spirit is properly considered 'it,' (without specific gender). In some cases, the article 'the' in the Greek is not distinguished, and can be either masc. or neut. In the majority of passages, holy spirit is an 'it,' and does not have masculine gender, nor can gender be properly applied. Gender is added by translators to give personality to the power and influence of holy spirit, but this cannot be supported by the manuscripts and must be discarded as error, or deception.

Finally,

The word 'Holy' in our English Bibles translates 'set-apart' in the Greek. The word 'spirit' in our English translations, is from the Latin 'wind, breath' and translates the Greek 'pne-u'-ma' which literally means 'blow effect, wind, breath, to breath.' It is the Greek word from which we get the English word 'pneumatic(s) having to do with air. By Scriptural implication like air, 'pne-u'-ma' or spirit, is the invisible intangible power of action, intelligence, and life. When used with, and/or referring to Yahweh (God) who IS spirit (John 4:24) it is His celestial power and influence as manifested in His invisible, intangible operations. When referring to the terrestrial, the word spirit must be considered in strict context of its use. The word can be used in many diverse applications in Scripture, as spirit of truth, spirit of error, deceptive spirit, gentle spirit etc., etc.

When referring to 'holy spirit' as proceeding from or of the Father, 'it' is His (Yahweh's) celestial Almighty Supreme Power Authority and influence over His Creation, as manifested in His continual invisible, and intangible operations, and His complete control. A correct Scriptural understanding of holy spirit will confirm that there is only 'one' Set-Apart Spirit, and that Spirit is the Almighty Yahweh. There is no such entity in the Scriptures as a separate Holy Spirit person apart from the Father Yahweh, or such an entity as 'the Holy Spirit, the third person of a Trinity.' The Scripture is very clear, the Father Himself is the Only Holy Spirit!

This is just an example, without going through each and every case, but the same will apply in many if not most of the other uses of spirit and in reference to holy spirit in the Scriptures.

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